EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: The Security Administrator needs to reconfigure the API server, which command would need to be ran?

Question2: What is Operational Excellence?

Question3: What is the key component in securing and managing any environment?

Question4: Which one of the following is part of the Orchestration Playbook process for creating a new spoke and an automated Security Gateway?

Question5: Can you deploy a gateway with only one NIC on azure with full functionality?

Question6: What is required to route transit traffic in the Southbound hub?

Question7: To travel between spokes, non-transitive traffic uses ________ to allow IPv4 and IPv6 traffic to reach a spoke network

Question8: Can you configure NAT for internal VM's on the Check Point Gateway in AWS?

Question9: Which hub serves as the front end of the Workload that permits inbound web communications such as HTTP traffic from the Internet to reach spoke Workloads?

Question10: Which command will enable the CloudGuard Controller services on the Security Management Server

Question11: Which rules are created in the Rulebase by the administrator, and are configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria?

Question12: Cloud Security Posture Management uses CloudBots to assist with________________.

Question13: When choosing PAYG (Pay As You Go) licensing in AWS, it is provided:

Question14: Once the Deployment finishes, Cloud Security Posture Management applies default network security posture that does what?

Question15: Logging Implied rules, enabling Hit Count and defining advanced VPN functions are all settings that are applied as

Question16: Why is an IAM role created when installing a cluster on AWS?

Question17: Which APIs are used by Public clouds and Hybrid clouds to support the interactions between cloud resources, on-premises equipment, scripts, orchestration playbooks and CloudGuard Network cloud resources, on-premise equipment, scripts?

Question18: Which CloudGuard security platform enables organizations to view and access their security posture, find cloud misconfigurations, and enforce best practices?

Question19: What is the CloudGuard solution?

Question20: Which Security Gateway function inspects cloud applications and workload resources for malicious activity?

Question21: Which solution delivers a software platform for public cloud security and compliance orchestration?

Question22: Which utility allows integration between the Check Point Security Management Server, the CloudGuard Network solution, and the CSPs?

Question23: What are the Automation tools?

Question24: Which of these is an example of Control Connections as accepted with implicit rules enabled from Global Properties?

Question25: The framework for cloud security consists of five basic components, or pillars Making small, reversible changes is a design principle of which of these five pillars

Question26: Which is not a Pillar of the Framework for the Cloud?

Question27: What are two basic rules Check Point recommends for building an effective policy?

Question28: Deploying CloudGuard IaaS security solutions involves which process?

Question29: Which applications perform the following automated remediations:
- Encrypt databases
- Rotate encryption keys
- Force password changes
- Quarantine instances

Question30: One of the five pillars of the framework for cloud security is 'Performance Efficiency'. The design principles of Performance Efficiency include:

Question31: What can Data Center Objects represent?

Question32: On Public Cloud, what is included in the BYOL (Bring your own license) package?

Question33: What is a Security Zone?

Question34: What part of the Secure Public Cloud Blueprint may be housed in on-premises equipment?

Question35: Which of the following is the Customer's Responsibility in the shared responsibility model used in the cloud?

Question36: One of the advantages of deploying Security Gateways in the cloud is:

Question37: How many AWS Internet gateways can you define in AWS?

Question38: Check Point's Public Cloud model is described as the following

Question39: Which log file should an administrator gather to expedite the diagnosis of a CloudGuard Controller issue?

Question40: Deployment of a Security Gateway was initiated on AWS using a CloudFormation Template available through sk111013. The deployment process, after a while failed and rolled back. What could be the probable cause of this failure and roll back?

Question41: Which is not a responsibility of the Customer?

Question42: Adaptive Security Policies allow the deployment of new cloud based resources without

Question43: The Cloud Security Posture Management platform uses REST API calls to carry out the following procedures EXCEPT:

Question44: According to best practices what would be the best way to install a Check Point cluster on AWS?

Question45: What does AMI stand for in AWS?

Question46: Can you configure Micro segmentation (control traffic inside a subnet) on Azure?

Question47: What can a Security Admin do in a situation where collecting additional log file information to examine a CloudGuard Controller issue is required?

Question48: What MS Azure feature needs to be configured to allow traffic to the gateway?

Question49: The ability to support development and run workloads effectively is commonly called:

Question50: Where are the api logs found on the Security Management Server?

Question51: Security administrators may import data center objects into the rulebase using the following options:

Question52: When Cloud Security Posture Management discovers non- compliant cloud resources, CloudBot applications perform automated remediation's to correct any violations. How true is this statement?

Question53: Adding new Security Gateways as system load increases is an example of __________

Question54: What is vertical scaling?

Question55: What are the two authentication methods supported by Azure data center objects?

Question56: Which autoscaling method requires the VM to temporarily shut down while it processes system modification?